No.6. Righteousness and the Mosaic Law.
(Numbers 4 and 5 does not appear in this volume 42).
It is impossible to pursue the teaching of the Scriptures on the matter of righteousness without coming up against the relation of righteousness with the law of Moses. One epistle of Paul, namely, that to the Galatians, is almost entirely devoted to that subject. So emphatic is the Apostle on the incompatibility of the two systems, law and grace, that he has written:
“Christ is become of no effect unto you, whosoever of you are justified by the law, ye are fallen from grace” (Gal. v. 4).
Again and again this sentiment is expressed in Paul’s epistles, so that a true understanding of the function of the law is of vital importance. The giving of the law at Mount Sinai took place about 2,400 years after the creation of Adam, but there are many evidences that ‘law’ was known among men during the long period between these two events. Moses himself speaks of making known laws and statutes before Sinai (Exod. xviii. 16); Abraham obeyed God’s “voice” and kept His ‘charge’, ‘commandments’, ‘statutes’ and ‘laws’ (Gen. xxvi. 5). In Genesis alone thirty-four such ‘laws’ have been noted in operation. Moreover Rom. ii. 14, 15, 26, 27 bears evidence to the fact that the nations of the earth had something similar to the law of Sinai ‘written in their hearts’. Finally, the Saviour made it clear that all the law and the prophets hung upon the primal law of love to God and to neighbour.
We are therefore right in asking the question, Why was the law specially given at Sinai? What purpose did it serve? Has obedience to this law, either in person or by a substitute, any place in the justification which pertains to the gospel?
Exod. xix. 1-7 and xxiv. 3-8 make it clear that at Sinai, Israel entered into a covenant with God. They would be His peculiar treasure and become a kingdom of priests if they kept this law, but the remainder of the O.T. is tragic witness to the utter failure of Israel to keep its terms. The Old Covenant is likened to Hagar and gendereth to bondage, and all under it are likened to those ‘born after the flesh’ (Gal. iv. 21-31).
The epistle to the Hebrews speaks of the ‘weakness and unprofitableness’ of this covenant; it shows that ‘the law’ made nothing perfect; that its ordinances were ‘carnal’; its priests ‘infirm’; its sacrifices utterly without avail either to touch the conscience or to put away sins. It declares that God found fault with this first covenant, but that in Christ He has established a New Covenant with a better Sacrifice, a better Priesthood, a better hope and better promises.
“In that He saith, A new covenant, He hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away” (Heb. viii. 13; x. 1-4).
“By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in His sight” (Rom. iii. 20).
As if this were not enough, note the answers of the Scriptures to the question, “Wherefore then serveth the law?” (Gal. iii. 19).
(1) “It was added because of transgressions, till the Seed should come to Whom the promise was made” (Gal. iii. 19).
(2) “If there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law” (Gal. iii. 21; ii. 21).
(3) The return of a believer to the law is described as going back to “weak and beggarly elements” (Gal. iv. 9).
(4) “As many as are of the works of the law are under the curse” (Gal. iii. 10).
(5) “The law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ” (Gal. iii. 24).
(6) “The law which was 430 years after (the promise to Abraham), cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect” (Gal. iii. 17).
(7) The Old Covenant is described as “the letter that killeth”, “the ministration of death” and “the ministration of condemnation”. It was destined to be “abolished” (II Cor. iii.).
(8) The law “worketh wrath” (Rom. iv. 15); and entered that sin “might abound” (Rom. v. 20).
(9) The Apostle, writing as a faithful Christian man, declared that before his conversion as “touching the righteousness of the law” he was “blameless”. This condition he called “mine own righteousness which is of the law”, yet so poor and futile was it (albeit no reader of these lines has ever reached it) that, when compared with the righteousness which is through the faith of Christ, he was constrained to fling aside his own righteousness as so much “refuse” (Phil. iii. 6-9).
(10) To this law—it claims, its righteousness, its rewards, its works, its promises and its penalties—Paul “died”, that in and with Christ he might “live” unto God (Gal. ii. 19).
(11) Though the law itself was “holy”, “just”, “good” and “spiritual”, man was carnal and the law was “weak through the flesh” (Rom. vii. 12-14; viii. 3).
Unconditionally and of set purpose, the Apostle sets the law aside as having no place in the plan of the gospel of grace. When this fact is established beyond the possibility of doubt, he returns to the primeval law of love:
“For all the law is fulfilled in one word; Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself” (Gal. v. 14).
“Love worketh no ill to his neighbour, therefore love is the fulfilling of the law” (Rom. xiii. 10).
The law of Moses therefore was a covenant destined to fail because of the inability of Israel to fulfil the terms, and so it becomes a demonstration for all time that ‘by the deeds of the law shall no flesh be justified in the sight of God’.
The Apostle’s earliest recorded Gospel address contains these words:
“Through this Man is preached unto you, the forgiveness of sins, and by Him all that believe are justified from all things, from which ye could not be justified by the law of Moses” (Acts xiii. 38, 39).
In view of the consistent testimony of Scripture to the character of that righteousness which is of the law, but to which Paul, as a Pharisee had attained (Phil. iii. 6), any system of teaching that maintains that the obedience of Christ to the law of Moses constitutes the righteousness in which the believer stands accepted, must be repudiated. We stand in ‘a righteousness of God’, a righteousness so far above that attainable under the law, that we must confess that ‘all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags’ in comparison, and like the Apostle, we gladly relinquish all such claim, that we may be found in Christ, not having our own righteousness which is of the law, but that which is by faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith.
If the reader should still feel that the righteousness that is imputed to the believer is the righteousness attained by the obedience of Christ to the law of Moses, let him consider the following:
(1) Is it not abundantly clear, that the whole doctrine of imputed righteousness is given its fullest and clearest exposition in Rom. iv.?
(2) Is it not also as abundantly clear that the great outstanding example and illustration of this doctrine of imputed righteousness is that of Abraham, of whom it is written “And he believed in the Lord; and he counted it to him for righteousness” (Gen. xv. 6)?
(3) Inasmuch as Abraham lived before Moses was born and so before the Mosaic law was instituted, it is utterly impossible that the justification of Abraham can have anything to do with obedience to that law, imputed or otherwise.
(4) Does an examination of either Gen. xv. or of Rom. iv. permit the slightest intrusion of obedience to law either by Abraham himself or the Lord for him? If the answer must be “No” then the teaching that splits the great work of Christ into His active obedience under the law of Moses, and His passive obedience in death, must be repudiated
(5) It is written that we are justified “by His blood” (Rom. v. 9).
Let us not by any system of theology veil that simple yet all-embracive fact.
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(From The Berean Expositor vol. 42, page 104).
http://charleswelch.net/BE%20Vol%2042%20Final.pdf
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If the reader should still feel that the righteousness that is imputed to the believer is the righteousness attained by the obedience of Christ to the law of Moses, let him consider the following:
(1) Is it not abundantly clear, that the whole doctrine of imputed righteousness is given its fullest and clearest exposition in Rom. iv.?
(2) Is it not also as abundantly clear that the great outstanding example and illustration of this doctrine of imputed righteousness is that of Abraham, of whom it is written “And he believed in the Lord; and he counted it to him for righteousness” (Gen. xv. 6)?
(3) Inasmuch as Abraham lived before Moses was born and so before the Mosaic law was instituted, it is utterly impossible that the justification of Abraham can have anything to do with obedience to that law, imputed or otherwise.
(4) Does an examination of either Gen. xv. or of Rom. iv. permit the slightest intrusion of obedience to law either by Abraham himself or the Lord for him? If the answer must be “No” then the teaching that splits the great work of Christ into His active obedience under the law of Moses, and His passive obedience in death, must be repudiated
(5) It is written that we are justified “by His blood” (Rom. v. 9).
Let us not by any system of theology veil that simple yet all-embracive fact.
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(From The Berean Expositor vol. 42, page 104).
http://charleswelch.net/BE%20Vol%2042%20Final.pdf
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